UPSC Prelims Modern History Questions

Compilation of Modern Indian History questions from recent UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examinations (General Studies Paper I), along with their answers and detailed explanations.

UPSC Prelims 2024: Modern History Questions

Q1. Consider the following acts:

1. The Indian Council Act of 1861
2. The Government of India Act of 1909
3. The Government of India Act of 1919
4. The Government of India Act of 1935

What is the correct chronological order of the assent of the above Acts?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 1-2-4-3
(d) 2-1-4-3

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
This is a straightforward chronological question.

• Indian Council Act: Passed in 1861 (remodelled the executive council).
• Morley-Minto Reforms: Enacted as the Government of India Act, 1909.
• Montague-Chelmsford Reforms: Enacted as the Government of India Act, 1919.
• Government of India Act: Passed in 1935.

Q2. With reference to the “Revisional Jurisdiction” of the High Court in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(Note: While this appears as Polity, it is often studied under Legal History/Evolution)

1. The High Court has the power to call for the record of any case which has been decided by any subordinate court.
2. It is a power of superintendence over subordinate courts.

Context: In 2024, questions were highly intermixed. However, a clearer history question was:

Q2 (Alternative). Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Satya Shodhak Samaj’?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jyotirao Phule
(c) E.V. Ramasamy Naicker
(d) Kandukuri Veeresalingam

(Note: This is a recurrent theme, though it appeared in variations in previous years, it remains a core static question).
Answer: (b)
Explanation:

• Jyotirao Phule founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers’ Society) in 1873 in Pune.
• Its main aim was to liberate the Shudras and Ati-Shudras from the exploitation of Brahmins and their scriptures.

Q3. With reference to the revenue settlements in British India, consider the following statements:

1. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in Bengal and Bihar.
2. The Ryotwari System was introduced in South India.
3. The Mahalwari System was introduced in Punjab and North-West Provinces.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Correct: Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement (Zamindari) in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in 1793.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Thomas Munro and Alexander Read introduced the Ryotwari System primarily in the Madras and Bombay presidencies.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The Mahalwari System (revenue settlement with the village community or ‘Mahal’) was implemented in the North-Western Provinces, parts of Central India, and Punjab (formalized by Holt Mackenzie).

UPSC Prelims 2023: Modern History Questions

Q1. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Answer: (d)
Explanation:

• Charter Act of 1833: This Act centralized the administration of India. It elevated the Governor General of Bengal to the Governor General of India and vested him with all civil and military powers.
• Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor General of India under this Act.

Q2. With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with:
(a) Archaeological excavations
(b) Establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(c) Establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) Construction of railways in Colonial India

Answer: (a)
Explanation:

• These figures were prominent archaeologists and historians associated with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) or historical documentation during the colonial era.
• A.H. Longhurst and Robert Sewell are famously known for their work on Hampi (Vijayanagara Empire).
• James Burgess was a Director-General of the ASI.
• Walter Elliot excavated the Amaravati Stupa.

UPSC Prelims 2022: Modern History Questions

Q1. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

• The Act of 1919 introduced Dyarchy in provinces.
• Reserved Subjects: Administered by the Governor and his executive council (not responsible to the legislature). These included key areas like Law and Order (Police), Land Revenue, Administration of Justice, Irrigation, and Finance.
• Transferred Subjects: Administered by the Governor with the aid of Ministers (responsible to the legislature). These included Local Self-Government, Education, Health, and Sanitation.

Q2. Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d)
Explanation:

• Rash Behari Bose: He was a revolutionary leader who escaped to Japan and was instrumental in the activities of the Ghadar Party abroad and later the Indian National Army (INA).
• Barindra Kumar Ghosh: Associated with the Anushilan Samiti (Bengal), not Ghadar.
• Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee: Associated with the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) and Anushilan Samiti.

Q3. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Cripps Mission (1942) proposed a Constituent Assembly where members were to be elected by the Lower Houses of Provincial Assemblies (proportional representation) and nominated by the Princely States. (The statement says “nominated by Provincial Assemblies” which is incorrect; they were elected).
• Statement 2 is Correct: The proposals explicitly stated that any province not willing to accept the new constitution could separate and sign a distinct agreement with Britain (essentially the right to secede/independence).

UPSC Prelims 2021: Modern History Questions

Q1. Who among the following was associated with the compilation of “Desher Katha” (Story of the Country)?
(a) Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar
(b) Rajendralal Mitra
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(d) Surendranath Banerjea

Answer: (a)
Explanation:

• Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar (a revolutionary thinker) wrote Desher Katha in 1904.
• The book described the economic exploitation of India by the British and was immensely influential during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.

Q2. With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
(b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
(c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
(d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status.

Answer: (a)
Explanation:

• On August 8, 1942, at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, the All India Congress Committee (AICC) passed the famous Quit India Resolution.
• Mahatma Gandhi gave the call “Do or Die” on this occasion.

Q3. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Sahgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as:
(a) Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
(b) Members of the Interim Government in 1946
(c) Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly
(d) Officers of the Indian National Army

Answer: (d)
Explanation:

• These three were officers of the Indian National Army (INA) or Azad Hind Fauj.
• They were the accused in the famous Red Fort Trials (1945–46), which sparked a massive wave of nationalism and public support across India.
  • Prem Sahgal (Hindu)
  • Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon (Sikh)
  • Shah Nawaz Khan (Muslim)

UPSC Prelims 2020: Modern History Questions

Q1. Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because:
(a) He was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do so
(b) He wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India
(c) He wanted to provide William Carey and his associates with employment
(d) He wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in India

Answer: (d)
Explanation:

• Lord Wellesley established Fort William College in 1800.
• The primary objective was to train young British Civil Servants (who came to India as administrators) in Indian languages, culture, law, and administration so they could govern effectively.

Q2. With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events?
(a) The Revolt of 1857
(b) The Mappila Rebellion of 1921
(c) The Indigo Revolt of 1859-60
(d) Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900

Answer: (d)
Explanation:

• The Munda Rebellion, led by Birsa Munda in the Chotanagpur region (Jharkhand), is famously known as Ulgulan (The Great Tumult).
• It was a tribal revolt against the British land policies and the exploitation by moneylenders (Dikus).

Q3. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of:
(a) Peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters
(b) Its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions
(c) National leaders’ opposition to the cultivation of indigo
(d) Government control over the planters

Answer: (b)
Explanation:

• While peasant resistance (like the Indigo Revolt of 1859) happened earlier, the final decline in the early 20th century (leading to the Champaran Satyagraha context) was due to the invention of synthetic dyes in Germany (late 19th century).
• Synthetic dyes were cheaper and easier to produce, making natural Indigo cultivation unprofitable in the global market.

Q4. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following?

1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Acceptance of Gandhi’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b)
Explanation:

• The Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) marked the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Accepted points:
  • Congress to participate in the Second Round Table Conference (Statement 1).
  • Withdrawal of ordinances curbing the movement (Statement 2).
  • Release of prisoners not charged with violence (Statement 4).
  • Right to make salt for personal consumption.
• Rejected points:
  • Gandhi demanded a public inquiry into police excesses, but Viceroy Irwin rejected this (Statement 3 is incorrect).
  • Gandhi also pleaded for the commutation of the death sentence of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev, which was also rejected.

UPSC Prelims Ancient History Questions 

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